Hi Joseph,
Sorry its taken so long to reply and thanks again for the thought provoking debate.
Re: Matt 3:7. I can't see how this shows John the Baptist was opposed to the law, rather, he was opposed to those not keeping it and practicing false worship. Later we find Jesus taking the same message to the religious leaders of the day, accusing them of putting heavy loads on the peoples shoulders and not being willing to help them. He also accused them of fulfilling the prophecy of Isaiah by following the traditions of men, letting go of the commandments, and making the word of God invalid. (Matt 15:1-11 23:4. Mark 7:5-8) On another occasion when the rich young man asked; "What must I do to get eternal life?" Jesus plainly said; "Obey the commandments." Even this wouldn't make him perfect though, as when the man said; "All these I have kept," Jesus told him to sell all his belongings and follow him. So we find two things here then; firstly, that Jesus taught everlasting life was dependant on obeying the law, or commandments and secondly obedience to the law wouldn't make you perfect. (Matt 19:16-22) It also shows that rather than abolishing the law, Jesus enhanced it and this is waht I meant when I refered to the Sermon on the Mount.
You used this example:in the Sermon on the Mount where Jesus teaches, by firstly reminding the people of the law on adultery and then saying; "But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery in his heart." (Matt 5:27,28)
Where in the Law is that found?
Here, Jesus wasn't rewriting the law, but enhancing it, and in fulfilment of Jeremiah 31 making a new covenant with his followers by putting the law in their hearts, or as NWT puts it; "I wil put my law within them and in their heart I shall write it." Jesus was using a prevention method, to get people to think about things more deeply, and control their thoughts first, before it led then into sin. (Jer 31:31-33)
To be honest Joseph, I hadn't thought about Jesus issuing commandments before, but wasn't that acceptable in his role as a prophet? Even more so if he was the Son of God. By issuing these commandments he in no way undermined the law though and its interesting that when challenged over which was the greatest of the commandment Jesus replied; "Love the Lord your God with all your heart with all your soul and with all your mind...And...Love your neighbour as yourself. All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments." (Matt 22:34-40) Its also worth noting that the person questioning Jesus was "an expert in the law." The command to love God is found at Deut 6:5 and correct me if I'm wrong I don't think the command to love neighbour appeared in the law in as many words, but the expert obviously knew it was there in essence, otherwise he would have challenged Jesus about this. Really, Jesus summed up the law perfectly here and if his followers kept those two things in mind, (loving God and neighbour) they would have fulfilled their obligation to the law. All of the other commands Jesus gave fell under these two statements and we could say were part of the law.
And Jesus said: Joh 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments. And again: Joh 14:21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him. Joh 15:10 If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father’s commandments, and abide in his love. Since Jesus was providing commandments of His own that differed from the Law and its commandments as taught at the last supper by drinking the wine which represented His blood for example how is it that this Jesus was supporting the Law and its continuation? And how about this commandment of Jesus: 47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die. Where is this found in the Law?
As a prophet of Yahweh, teacher and rabbi Jesus represented his God and father, so these were not his own commandments and John 8:27-30 makes that quite clear for Jesus said; "I do nothing on my own but speak just as the Father has taught me." Jesus would hardly overstep the commandments of God, by making up his own, when that's exactly what he critisized the Pharisees and Scribes for, would he?
So many texts like Ac 13:39 And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses - apart of Paul’s writings so where do I start? Heb 7:19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God. A better hope brought in? Not a continuation of this Law? Any other form of worship deemed better would have violated this Law making the worshipers apostate and libel to be stoned. Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron? Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law. Wow! The Law broken big time. Get out the stones. And it goes on and on like this but not so if your mind is closed. It is not necessary to cover every verse and cross every tee. You have your views and I have stated mine. It is up to the readers now to study the matter on their own and make up their own minds.
The point I made was that I hadn't seen anything other than in Paul where Jesus, or John the Baptist suggested they were going to abolish the law, yet all the verses quoted above were either penned by Paul, who most scholars believe wrote Hebrews, or his disciple Luke, who wrote Acts, so we'd expect them to suggest this. (Colossians 4:14 & Philemon 24)
The priesthood and rulership of Israel was changed, just as Jeremiah and Ezekiel had prohesied. Why? Because they had continually disregarded the Law and had turned away from true worship. Ezekiel 21:26 makes it quite clear when Yahweh commands; "Take off the turban, remove the crown. It will not be as it was: The lowly will be exalted and the exalted will be brought low. A ruin! A ruin! I will make it a ruin. It will not be restored until he comes to whom it rightfully belongs; to him I will give it."
The above prophecy forcasts the end of both the royal and priestly lines, which would not be the same, but rather, would be given to whom it rightfully belongs and quite possibly a King/Priest in the manner of Melchizadek. (Psalm 110:4) Just because the priesthood was changed due to their dissobedience to the law, there is nothing to suggest that the Law had to change also.
Thanks again Joseph for a most interesting debate.
Steve J